Calculating Fourier Cosine Series of cos(x) from 0 to \pi

In summary, the Fourier cosine series for cosx is given by f(x)=\frac{1}{2}a_0+\sum_{n=1}^{\inf}a_n cos nx dx where a_n=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_0^\pi f(x)cos nx dx. The series is identically zero for n=1.
  • #1
Suvadip
74
0
Find the Fourier cosine series of \(\displaystyle cos(x)\) from \(\displaystyle x=0 ~to ~\pi\)

Here the Fourier series is given by
\(\displaystyle f(x)=\frac{1}{2}a_0+\sum_{n=1}^{\inf}a_n cos nx dx\) where \(\displaystyle a_n=\frac{2}{\pi}\int_0^\pi f(x)cos nx dx\)
I am facing problem to solve it. I am getting \(\displaystyle a_0=0\) and \(\displaystyle a_n=0\) so the Fourier series becomes identically zero.
 
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  • #2
Are you sure, that $a_n=0$ for $n=1$?
 
  • #3
lfdahl said:
Are you sure, that $a_n=0$ for $n=1$?

Ohh sorry, \(\displaystyle a_n=1~ for ~n=1, a_n=0\) otherwise

Then Fourier cosine series for cosx is cosx?
 
  • #4
suvadip said:
Ohh sorry, \(\displaystyle a_n=1 for n=1, a_n=0\) otherwise

Then Fourier cosine series for cosx is cosx?

Yes :)
 
  • #5
One thing often not touched upon in Fourier analysis is that the set of functions

$\{f: [-\pi,\pi] \to \Bbb R\}$ that are integrable form a vector space:

We can add them:

$(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x)$

And multiply them by a real number:

$(cf)(x) = c \cdot f(x)$

Furthermore, the definite integral:

\(\displaystyle \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)g(x)\ dx\)

satisfies all the requirements of an inner product.

Now, it is a difficult theorem to show that:

$\{1,\cos(x),\sin(x),\cos(2x),\sin(2x),\dots,\cos(nx),\sin(nx),\dots\}$

forms a basis for this vector space, but it is somewhat easier to show it is a basis for the subset of such functions that have a Fourier series, and it turns out that this basis (sometimes the scalar multiple of 1 is modified for cleaner formulas) is orthogonal with respect to this inner product. This means that the "coordinates" of these vectors (functions) are the projections of the functions onto their orthogonal basis vectors, and that is precisely what the Fourier coefficients ARE

(just like with "normal vectors" the $j$-th coordinate of:

$v = (v_1,\dots,v_n)$ is $v\cdot e_j = v_j$, where $e_j = (0,\dots,1,\dots,0)$ with all 0's except for a 1 in the $j$-th place).

As such, from the uniqueness of the linear combination of basis elements for any vector, we have that the Fourier series of $\cos(nx)$ is $\cos(nx)$ and similarly the Fourier series of $\sin(nx)$ is also $\sin(nx)$, with no actual need to compute the Fourier coefficients.

A neat trick:

Evaluate the Fourier series for $x^2$ on $[-\pi,\pi]$ at $x = \pi$ to conclude that:

$\zeta(2) = \dfrac{\pi^2}{6}$

(the zeta function is defined by: \(\displaystyle \zeta(s) = \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^s}\) for any complex number $s$ with real part > 1).
 

FAQ: Calculating Fourier Cosine Series of cos(x) from 0 to \pi

What is a Fourier Cosine Series and what is its significance?

A Fourier Cosine Series is a mathematical series that represents a periodic function, such as cos(x), as a sum of cosine functions with different frequencies and amplitudes. It is significant because it allows us to approximate a complex function with simpler trigonometric functions, making it easier to analyze and manipulate.

How do you calculate the Fourier Cosine Series of cos(x) from 0 to π?

To calculate the Fourier Cosine Series of cos(x) from 0 to π, we use the following formula:
an = (2/π)∫0π cos(nx)cos(x) dx =
1 for n = 1
0 for n ≠ 1
This means that the series will only have a cosine term with n = 1, and all other terms will be 0. This can be written as:
cos(x) = 1 + ∑n=1 0

How do you interpret the coefficients in the Fourier Cosine Series?

The coefficients in the Fourier Cosine Series represent the amplitude of each cosine term in the series. For example, the coefficient of 1 represents the amplitude of the cosine term with n = 1, and all other coefficients being 0 means that there are no other cosine terms in the series.

Can the Fourier Cosine Series of cos(x) from 0 to π be used to approximate cos(x) for any value of x?

No, the Fourier Cosine Series of cos(x) from 0 to π can only be used to approximate cos(x) for values between 0 and π. This is because the series is only defined for that interval and will not accurately represent the function for values outside of that range.

How does the accuracy of the Fourier Cosine Series of cos(x) from 0 to π change as the number of terms in the series increases?

As the number of terms in the series increases, the accuracy of the approximation also increases. This is because adding more terms allows the series to better approximate the original function. However, even with an infinite number of terms, the series will only be an approximation and not an exact representation of the function.

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