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In class we were trying to calculate the induced electric field created by changing the magnetic field stregth.
Imagine there's a circular surface which magnetic field out of the screen.Since we are changing the magnetic field from Faraday's Law there should be a induced current or charge flow simply.To create this motion we need electric field.So he drew another circle inside the outer surface with radius r Here is the pic
Then he said let's suppose there's a charge on the point P.And he explained the Electric Field and direction etc.And He said let's suppose It rotates once the circle
Now then He did something like this;
##W=qε=\int {\vec{F}⋅d\vec{r}}##
##W=qε=Eq2πr##
##ε=E2πr## Then he used Faraday's Law and we found the E field.
I am stucked cause
##W=qε=\int {\vec{F}⋅d\vec{r}}## should be zero.Cause it comes to same point.
##W=\int_p^p {\vec{F}⋅d\vec{r}}=0##
He never used ##\oint##
What am I missing ?
If were used closed integral like ##\oint_p^p q\vec {E}⋅d\vec{r}=Eq2πr## ?
I think He should use closed integral.
Imagine there's a circular surface which magnetic field out of the screen.Since we are changing the magnetic field from Faraday's Law there should be a induced current or charge flow simply.To create this motion we need electric field.So he drew another circle inside the outer surface with radius r Here is the pic
Then he said let's suppose there's a charge on the point P.And he explained the Electric Field and direction etc.And He said let's suppose It rotates once the circle
Now then He did something like this;
##W=qε=\int {\vec{F}⋅d\vec{r}}##
##W=qε=Eq2πr##
##ε=E2πr## Then he used Faraday's Law and we found the E field.
I am stucked cause
##W=qε=\int {\vec{F}⋅d\vec{r}}## should be zero.Cause it comes to same point.
##W=\int_p^p {\vec{F}⋅d\vec{r}}=0##
He never used ##\oint##
What am I missing ?
If were used closed integral like ##\oint_p^p q\vec {E}⋅d\vec{r}=Eq2πr## ?
I think He should use closed integral.
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