Calculating Induced EMF in a Larger Solenoid Slipped Over Another Solenoid

Click For Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating the induced electromotive force (emf) in a larger solenoid slipped over a smaller one, with specific parameters provided for both solenoids. It is clarified that an emf is induced in the second solenoid due to the changing magnetic flux from the first solenoid, despite the misconception that the magnetic field outside a solenoid is zero. The calculations for the induced emf in both scenarios yield values of approximately -2.93 x 10^-7 V for the first case and -5.86255 x 10^-7 V for the second case, with adjustments made for the number of turns per meter. The discussion emphasizes the importance of using correct units and understanding the principles of Faraday's law in these calculations. Overall, the exchange highlights the relationship between changing magnetic fields and induced emf in solenoids.
cuallito
Messages
94
Reaction score
1
1. Problem statement

A very long straight solenoid has a diameter of 3cm, 40 turns per cm, and a current of .275 A. A second solenoid is with larger diameter is slipped over it with N turns per cm, and the current is ramped down to zero over 0.2 s.

a) What is the emf induced in the second coil if it has a diameter of 3.6cm and N=6?
b) The diameter is 7.2cm and N=12 ?

Homework Equations


B=μNI

The Attempt at a Solution


Wouldn't the answer to both (a) and (b) be zero, since the magnetic field outside a solenoid is basically zero?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
cuallito said:
Wouldn't the answer to both (a) and (b) be zero, since the magnetic field outside a solenoid is basically zero?
No. An emf will be induced in the second solenoid as long as there is a changing magnetic flux through it. Pretty amazing. The changing magnetic field of the first solenoid induces an electric field both inside and outside the first solenoid. This induced electric field is what creates the emf in the second solenoid. But you don't need to calculate this electric field in order to work the problem.

Is the diameter of the first solenoid given?
 
Oh sorry, left it it out, 3cm.

So would the magnetic flux passing thru both solenoids be the same, like a transformer?

So let me take a stab at it here:

The magnetic flux from the first solenoid would be:

Φ1=BA
A=cross sectional area
B=μ*N1*I
N1=number of turns of 1st solenoid
Φ1=μ*N1*I*A

Magnetic flux thru both solenoids would be the same Φ1=Φ2

Ampere's law for 2nd solenoid:
emf=-N2*Φ/Δt
emf=-N2*μ*N1*I*A/Δt

Plugging in for (a) I get -2.93*10^-7 V
for (b) I get -5.86255*10^-7

Is that right?
 
Last edited:
cuallito said:
Φ1=BA
A=cross sectional area
B=μ*N1*I
N1=number of turns of 1st solenoid
Φ1=μ*N1*I*A
Note that N1 is the number of turns per unit length of solenoid 1

Magnetic flux thru both solenoids would be the same Φ1=Φ2

Ampere's law for 2nd solenoid:
emf=-N2*Φ/Δt
emf=-N2*μ*N1*I*A/Δt
OK. (Faraday's law - not Ampere's law)

Plugging in for (a) I get -2.93*10^-7 V
for (b) I get -5.86255*10^-7
I do not get the same power of 10. Did you express N1 in SI units?
 
Last edited:
Ah, so N1 would be 40/.01 = 4000 turns per meter.

So you'd get to the -5 instead of -7th power?
 
cuallito said:
Ah, so N1 would be 40/.01 = 4000 turns per meter.

So you'd get to the -5 instead of -7th power?
Yes, that is what I got.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

Similar threads

  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
49
Views
6K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
10K
Replies
9
Views
6K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
4K