- #1
shen07
- 54
- 0
Hi guys,
well i have the problem below,
$$\int_{\gamma(0;1)}\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}\mathrm{d}z$$
so it is holormorphic in D'(0,1) as it has a point not holomorphic at z=0.
Taking a Laurent Series in the form $$f(z)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}C_n(z-0)^n$$
But i wil get $$\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}=\frac{1}{iz+(iz)^2+(iz)^3+\cdots}$$
If i get the coefficient of $$C_-1$$, then i am done. I will have to do a long Division involving $$i$$, Is there any simpler way to do that?? Or please help me the way i am proceeding.
well i have the problem below,
$$\int_{\gamma(0;1)}\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}\mathrm{d}z$$
so it is holormorphic in D'(0,1) as it has a point not holomorphic at z=0.
Taking a Laurent Series in the form $$f(z)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}C_n(z-0)^n$$
But i wil get $$\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}=\frac{1}{iz+(iz)^2+(iz)^3+\cdots}$$
If i get the coefficient of $$C_-1$$, then i am done. I will have to do a long Division involving $$i$$, Is there any simpler way to do that?? Or please help me the way i am proceeding.