- #1
Kalus
- 37
- 0
I'm a little confused as how to calculate the power of motor you would need in a certain scenario.
Imagine you have an electric motor sitting upright (so spindle pointing towards the sky) with a metal disc attached to the spindle. Now imagine that you have some metal rod that is being pressed down on the disc exerting a frictional force at a distance from the center of r/2 (where r is radius).
I know the equation that power= torque*angular velocity... but I am unsure what to include as torque.
Obviously the frictional force(F_f) exerts a "stopping" torque of F_f * r/2 but would you also need to calculate the torque to get the disc spinning on its own, E.g Torque= I*angular acceleration?
If so, how do you calculate angular acceleration?
Also, if you came up with a resistive torque of X, then would the torque of the motor need to be X+1 or whatever to get the thing to actually spin up?
Many thanks, Kalus
Imagine you have an electric motor sitting upright (so spindle pointing towards the sky) with a metal disc attached to the spindle. Now imagine that you have some metal rod that is being pressed down on the disc exerting a frictional force at a distance from the center of r/2 (where r is radius).
I know the equation that power= torque*angular velocity... but I am unsure what to include as torque.
Obviously the frictional force(F_f) exerts a "stopping" torque of F_f * r/2 but would you also need to calculate the torque to get the disc spinning on its own, E.g Torque= I*angular acceleration?
If so, how do you calculate angular acceleration?
Also, if you came up with a resistive torque of X, then would the torque of the motor need to be X+1 or whatever to get the thing to actually spin up?
Many thanks, Kalus