- #1
Gvido_Anselmi
- 31
- 6
Hello everyone.
Let us consider two fermions whose spin state wave functions are certain (normalized) ##\psi_{1}## and ##\psi_{2}##.
So the overall normalized spin state wave function of this system is of the form:
##\psi = (1/\sqrt{2})(\psi_{1} \psi_{2} - \psi_{2} \psi_{1})##
Is there any difference between calculating the total square spin operator ##\hat S^{2}## eigenvalue and the average value of ##S^{2}##?
Let us consider two fermions whose spin state wave functions are certain (normalized) ##\psi_{1}## and ##\psi_{2}##.
So the overall normalized spin state wave function of this system is of the form:
##\psi = (1/\sqrt{2})(\psi_{1} \psi_{2} - \psi_{2} \psi_{1})##
Is there any difference between calculating the total square spin operator ##\hat S^{2}## eigenvalue and the average value of ##S^{2}##?
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