Calculating the effect of an operator on an arbitrary state

In summary, the result of the operator $\widehat{R} \equiv \Pi_i \left( \widehat{Q} -q_i \right)$ on an arbitrary state $\Psi$ is the sum of the products of the states' respective quaternions.
  • #1
Fantini
Gold Member
MHB
268
0
Hello. I need help with the following:

Suppose a basis set of states $\varphi_i$. Calculate the effect of the operator $\widehat{R} \equiv \Pi_i \left( \widehat{Q} -q_i \right)$ on an arbitrary state $\Psi$, assuming that the equation $\widehat{Q} \varphi_i = q_i \varphi_i$ is satisfied.

I'm convinced that the answer is zero, but I don't know how to manipulate the indices to reflect that. I've calculated explicitly the cases for $n=2$ and $n=3$.
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Hi Fantini,

It may help to note that all of the operators $Q-q_{i}$ commute; i.e.
$$(Q-q_{i})(Q-q_{j})=(Q-q_{j})(Q-q_{i})$$
If we use this observation, I think we can avoid dealing with messy indices.

Does this help move things in the right direction? Let me know if anything is unclear/not quite right.
 
  • #3
Hi GJA. This doesn't really point me somewhere. I'm still lost at how to do the abstract computation. I'm conjecturing the result holds only for a finite index.
 
  • #4
You can write
$$\Psi=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \varphi_j,$$
since $\{\varphi_j\}$ is a basis. Then compute
$$\hat{R} \, \Psi=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q}-q_i) \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \varphi_j.$$
Can you continue?
 
  • #5
No, I can't. I tried that, but I don't know how to actually perform the product/distribution to show that it equals zero.
 
  • #6
Ok, so we get
\begin{align*}
\hat{R} \, \Psi&=\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q}-q_i) \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \varphi_j \\
&= \sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q}-q_i)\varphi_j \\
&=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(\hat{Q} \,\varphi_j-q_i \, \varphi_j) \\
&=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}a_j \, \prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(q_j \,\varphi_j-q_i \, \varphi_j) \\
&=\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\prod_{i=1}^{\infty}(q_j -q_i ) \, a_j \, \varphi_j.
\end{align*}
This all assumes the necessary convergence so that we can switch the order of operations. Does the result look like zero?
 

FAQ: Calculating the effect of an operator on an arbitrary state

What is an operator in quantum mechanics?

An operator in quantum mechanics is a mathematical representation of a physical observable, such as position, momentum, or energy. It acts on a quantum state and produces another quantum state as a result.

How do you calculate the effect of an operator on an arbitrary state?

To calculate the effect of an operator on an arbitrary state, you first need to express the operator as a matrix. Then, you multiply the matrix representing the operator with the vector representing the state, and the resulting vector is the new state after the operator has been applied.

What is the significance of calculating the effect of an operator on a state?

Calculating the effect of an operator on a state allows us to understand how the state will evolve in time, and how the corresponding physical observable will change. This is crucial in quantum mechanics, as it helps us make predictions about the behavior of quantum systems.

Can the effect of an operator be measured experimentally?

Yes, the effect of an operator can be measured experimentally by measuring the corresponding physical observable. For example, if we apply the position operator to a state, we can measure the position of the system and compare it to the predicted value from the calculation.

Are there any limitations to calculating the effect of an operator on an arbitrary state?

One limitation is that not all operators can be represented as matrices, so this method may not be applicable in all cases. Additionally, the calculation may become more complex for higher dimensional systems with more operators involved.

Similar threads

Replies
6
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
21
Views
2K
Back
Top