Calculation of Clebsch-Gordan coefficients

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The discussion revolves around calculating Clebsch-Gordan coefficients for two spin-1/2 particles. The user successfully derived several coefficients but seeks guidance on determining the correct sign for the coefficient associated with the |0,0⟩ state. They denote |0,0⟩ as a linear combination of |1/2,-1/2⟩ and |-1/2,1/2⟩, leading to the equation |α|² = 1/2, which offers two possible values for α. The conversation highlights the importance of the relative phase between α and β and references the Condon-Shortley convention for selecting coefficients. Ultimately, the user is looking for clarity on how to align their results with established conventions.
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Homework Statement


I have two spin-1/2 particles and I need to calculate their Clebsch-Gordan coefficients.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I followed the procedure of applying J_- to |{j,m}\rangle
and J_{1-} and J_{2-} to |{m_1,m_2}\rangle and comparing them. I got correctly
\langle{1,1}|{1/2,1/2}\rangle =1,
\langle{1,0}|{1/2,-1/2}\rangle=1/\sqrt{2},
\langle{1,0}|{-1/2,1/2}\rangle =1/\sqrt{2},
\langle{1,-1}|{-1/2,-1/2}\rangle=1.
Now I want to find \langle{0,0}|{1/2,-1/2}\rangle
and \langle{0,0}|{-1/2,1/2}\rangle.
Therefore I denoted |{0,0}\rangle = \alpha|{1/2,-1/2}\rangle + \beta|{-1/2,1/2}\rangle
and used the normalization condition |\alpha|^2 + |\beta|^2 = 1 and orthogonality to the |{1,0}\rangle state. I got the equation
|\alpha|^2 = 1/2 from which there are 2 options:
\alpha = 1/\sqrt{2} and \alpha = -1/\sqrt{2} (only real coefficients by convention). How do I know which is the right option out of the two?

Thanks!
 
Last edited:
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The overall sign of ##\alpha## doesn't really matter. What's important is the relative phase between ##\alpha## and ##\beta##. What combination of ##\alpha## and ##\beta## will yield a state orthogonal to ##|1, 0\rangle##?
 
Ok. I agree. But the standard table has a certain convention. How do I know how to pick the sign to fit this convention?
 
According to this page, this is the convention:

The Condon-Shortley convention is that the highest m-state of the larger component angular momentum is assigned a positive coefficient.

Still seems a bit ambiguous in your case, though.
 

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