- #1
solakis1
- 422
- 0
Is it possible for \(\displaystyle A\cap B^c\cap C^c= A\cap C^c\) to be equivalent to
\(\displaystyle A\cap B\cap C= A\cap B\) ??
I think not
Is there any way to check that without a counter example??
\(\displaystyle A\cap B\cap C= A\cap B\) ??
I think not
Is there any way to check that without a counter example??