- #1
rukawakaede
- 59
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Reworded version:
I think I need to re-word as follow:
Can a nonempty set X with P(X)=0?
Suppose F to be a non-empty set with [tex]P(F)\neq 0[/tex]. Call its closure be F'.
Now let set theoretic different F'\F be A. Clearly, A could be non-empty.
Is this the case where P(A)=0?
Is not, how do you relate P(F) and P(F')?=================================Original version:
Can a nonempty set X has P(X)=0?
My thought is suppose a nonempty set F then its closure F'\F=A where P(A)=0.
Is this true??
I think I need to re-word as follow:
Can a nonempty set X with P(X)=0?
Suppose F to be a non-empty set with [tex]P(F)\neq 0[/tex]. Call its closure be F'.
Now let set theoretic different F'\F be A. Clearly, A could be non-empty.
Is this the case where P(A)=0?
Is not, how do you relate P(F) and P(F')?=================================Original version:
Can a nonempty set X has P(X)=0?
My thought is suppose a nonempty set F then its closure F'\F=A where P(A)=0.
Is this true??
Last edited: