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tam421602
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Can anyone help me ? I am completely lost on this one
tam421602 said:Can anyone help me ? I am completely lost on this one
This is because as n approaches Infinity, the term (1+x/n)^n approaches the definition of the mathematical constant e. This can be seen through the limit definition of e, which states that as n approaches Infinity, (1+1/n)^n approaches the value of e.
Yes, this can be proven using the limit definition of e and the properties of limits. By taking the limit as n approaches Infinity of (1+x/n)^n, we can see that it approaches the definition of e. Therefore, e^x and (1+x/n)^n are equivalent as n approaches Infinity.
The equation e^x = (1+x/n)^n as n approaches Infinity is a representation of the definition of e. As n approaches Infinity, the term (1+x/n)^n approaches the value of e, making the equation true.
No, the equation is valid for all values of x. This can be seen through the limit definition of e, which does not have any restrictions on the values of x.
One example of how this equation is used in real life is in compound interest calculations. The equation e^x = (1+x/n)^n as n approaches Infinity can be used to model the growth of an investment over time, where x represents the annual interest rate and n represents the number of compounding periods per year.