Can Harmonic Functions Agree at All Points in a Bounded Domain?

  • MHB
  • Thread starter Euge
  • Start date
In summary, a harmonic function is a smooth function that satisfies Laplace's equation and has no sharp peaks or valleys. A bounded domain is a defined region with a boundary, often represented in mathematics as a set of points within a specific shape. It is possible for two harmonic functions to agree at all points in a bounded domain, which means they have the same values and behavior throughout the domain. This can be useful in solving mathematical problems and understanding physical systems. The agreement of harmonic functions at all points in a bounded domain is determined by checking if they satisfy Laplace's equation and have the same boundary conditions.
  • #1
Euge
Gold Member
MHB
POTW Director
2,073
244
Here is this week's POTW:

-----
Let $\phi_1$ and $\phi_2$ be harmonic functions on a bounded domain $\Omega \subset \mathbb R^3$ such that \[\phi_1 \frac{\partial \phi_1}{\partial n} + \phi_2 \frac{\partial \phi_2}{\partial n} = \phi_2 \frac{\partial \phi_1}{\partial n} + \phi_1 \frac{\partial \phi_2}{\partial n}\quad \text{on}\quad \partial \Omega\]
Prove that $\phi_1 = \phi_2$ everywhere in $\Omega$. [The operator $\frac{\partial}{\partial n}$ denotes the normal derivative on $\partial \Omega$.]

-----

Remember to read the https://mathhelpboards.com/showthread.php?772-Problem-of-the-Week-%28POTW%29-Procedure-and-Guidelines to find out how to https://mathhelpboards.com/forms.php?do=form&fid=2!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
No one answered this week's problem correctly, but that's ok since it was tacitly assumed that $\phi_1$ and $\phi_2$ agree at some point in $\Omega$. (Smile) You can read my solution below.

If $\phi := \phi_1 - \phi_2$, then $\phi \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial n} = 0$ on $\partial \Omega$ and $\nabla^2 \phi = 0$ in $\Omega$. By Green's formula, $$\int_\Omega \lvert \nabla \phi\rvert^2\, dx = \oint_{\partial \Omega} \phi \frac{\partial \phi}{\partial n}\, dS - \int_{\Omega} \phi \nabla^2 \phi\, dx = 0 - 0 = 0$$ Hence $\lvert \nabla \phi\rvert^2 = 0$. Since $\Omega$ is connected $\phi$ is constant. As $\phi_1$ and $\phi_2$ agree at some point in $\Omega$, $\phi$ must be zero at that point, making $\phi$ identically zero. Hence $\phi_1$ and $\phi_2$ are identical.
 

FAQ: Can Harmonic Functions Agree at All Points in a Bounded Domain?

What are harmonic functions?

Harmonic functions are functions that satisfy the Laplace equation, which is a second-order partial differential equation. In simpler terms, they are functions that have a constant rate of change and exhibit a smooth, continuous behavior.

What is a bounded domain?

A bounded domain is a subset of a mathematical space that is limited or finite in some way. In the case of harmonic functions, a bounded domain refers to a region in which the function is defined and has finite values.

Can harmonic functions agree at all points in a bounded domain?

Yes, harmonic functions can agree at all points in a bounded domain. This is because harmonic functions are continuous and have a constant rate of change, so they can overlap and have the same values at different points within the bounded domain.

What is the significance of harmonic functions agreeing at all points in a bounded domain?

The agreement of harmonic functions at all points in a bounded domain is important in many areas of mathematics and physics. It allows for the use of harmonic functions in solving boundary value problems, as well as in the study of potential theory and electrostatics.

Are there any practical applications of harmonic functions agreeing at all points in a bounded domain?

Yes, there are several practical applications of harmonic functions agreeing at all points in a bounded domain. Some examples include the use of harmonic functions in heat transfer and fluid dynamics problems, as well as in image processing and data interpolation techniques.

Back
Top