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Homework Statement
If [tex]\int_{0}^{pi/4}\tan^{6}(x)sec(x)dx = I[/tex] then express [tex]\int_{0}^{pi/4}\tan^{8}(x)sec(x)dx[/tex] in terms of I.
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
I figured you would have to get the second equation to look like the first one, so I pulled out a tan^2(x) to make it
[tex]\int_{0}^{pi/4}\((sec^{2}(x)-1)tan^{6}(x)sec(x)dx[/tex] then
[tex]\int_{0}^{pi/4}\sec^{2}{x}tan^{6}(x)sec(x)dx - I[/tex]
And here's where I get stuck. My thought is to use integration by parts, setting sec^2 = u, and tan^6xsecxdx = dv. However this just leads me to a dead end when I try to figure out what v could be. Using the opposite substitution (u = tan^6... etc) I end up with
[tex]tan^{7}(x)sec(x) - 6\int_{0}^{pi/4}\tan^{6}(x)sec^{3}(x)dx = 2\int_{0}^{pi/4}\tan^{8}(x)sec(x)dx[/tex]
which gives me the same problem I had to begin with (an even power to tangent and an odd power of secant).
Is there some substitution I could make somewhere?