Can Non-zero Polynomials with Real Coefficients Have Real Roots in Common?

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In summary, non-zero polynomials with real coefficients can have real roots in common, which is known as the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra. The Euclidean Algorithm can be used to determine if two polynomials have common real roots. Two polynomials with real coefficients cannot have only complex roots in common. It is possible for two polynomials to have all their roots in common, and the significance of two polynomials having common real roots is that they have at least one solution in common, which can be useful in solving systems of equations.
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anemone
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Let $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ be non-zero polynomials with real coefficients such that $f(x^2+x+1)=f(x)g(x)$. Show that $f(x)$ has no real roots.

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Congratulations to castor28 for his correct solution(Cool), which you can find below:

If $f(x) = 0$, then $f(x^2+x+1) = 0$. This means that, if $\alpha$ is a root of $f(x)$, $\alpha^2+\alpha+1$ is also a root of $f(x)$.

If $\alpha$ is real, $\alpha < \alpha^2+\alpha+1$, and this gives an infinite ascending sequence of roots of $f(x)$. As $f(x)$ is a non-zero polynomial, this is a contradiction.

To show that the proposition is not vacuously true, we try to find examples of functions $f(x)$ that satisfy the hypothesis.

Let us write $t(x) = x^2 + x + 1$.

We note first that the set of good functions is closed under multiplication. Indeed, if $f_1(t(x)) = f_1(x)g_1(x)$ and $f_2(t(x)) = f_2(x)g_2(x)$, we have $f'(t(x)) = f'(x)g'(x)$, with $f'=f_1f_2$ and $g'=g_1g_2$. This shows that it is enough to find irreducible good functions.

By the previous argument, the iterates $t^n(\alpha)$ of any root $\alpha$ of $f(x)$ must only produce a finite set of values. We can therefore find suitable functions $f(x)$ by looking for fixed points of the iterates $t^n(x)$, or by factoring $t^n(x) - x$ for various $n$. We give a couple of examples:

For $n=1$, $t(x) - x = x^2 + 1$. This gives $f(x) = x^2 + 1$.
We compute $f(t(x))=x^4+2x^3+3x^2+2x+2=(x^2+1)(x^2+2x+2)$, giving $g(x) = (x^2+2x+2)$.

For $n=2, t(t(x)) - x = x^4+2x^3+4x^2+3x+3 = (x^2+1)(x^2+2x+3)$. Since we already have $x^2+1$, we take $f(x) = x^2+2x+3$.
We compute $f(t(x)) = x^4+2x^3+5x^2+4x+6 = (x^2+2x+3)(x^2+2)$, giving $g(x) = x^2 + 2$.

There is apparently an interesting pattern here.
 

FAQ: Can Non-zero Polynomials with Real Coefficients Have Real Roots in Common?

Can non-zero polynomials with real coefficients have real roots in common?

Yes, it is possible for non-zero polynomials with real coefficients to have real roots in common. This occurs when the polynomials share at least one real root.

How can I determine if two polynomials have real roots in common?

You can determine if two polynomials have real roots in common by finding the roots of each polynomial and seeing if they overlap. If they share at least one root, then they have real roots in common.

What does it mean for polynomials to have real roots in common?

When polynomials have real roots in common, it means that they both have at least one real number that satisfies both equations. This can also be thought of as the point where the two polynomials intersect on a graph.

Is it possible for two polynomials to have only imaginary roots in common?

Yes, it is possible for two polynomials to have only imaginary roots in common. This occurs when the polynomials do not share any real roots, but have the same complex roots.

How does the degree of a polynomial affect the possibility of having real roots in common?

The degree of a polynomial does not affect the possibility of having real roots in common. Whether or not two polynomials have real roots in common depends on the specific roots of each polynomial, not their degree.

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