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Voodoo Chile
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What if quantum mechanics is combined in an experiment with time dilation? Not that unheard of as subatomic particles can travel very fast, until they are relatively close to the speed of light.
Take a ship moving very fast, say .25c. Now take a particle that would travel at either .25c in one of two directions (using a beam splitter): Either forward in the direction of the ship or backwards relative to the ship. The particle would go through both paths, and therefore be going in both directions, and therefore both speeds relative to you, at .5c and 0c. The particle would act as if it was going both directions, and therefore would experience normal time due to being stationary, and slower time due to going forward.
My relativity knowledge isn't as good as my quantum mechanics knowledge (I know the particle wouldn't travel exactly .25c either way because of time dilation relative to the ship, so I'm taking liberties with this argument already) but theoretically, would the particle now exist in multiple time-frames? And therefore, would the particle be in not only two places at once, but also at two TIMES at once? (ironic statement, as understanding arguments of simultaneity is the major starting point in studying time dilation.)
I'm probably wrong in this theory, but I feel that when you collapsed the wave function on one end, you have sent information across time. If anyone would be able to explain why I'm misunderstanding it, that would be great.
Take a ship moving very fast, say .25c. Now take a particle that would travel at either .25c in one of two directions (using a beam splitter): Either forward in the direction of the ship or backwards relative to the ship. The particle would go through both paths, and therefore be going in both directions, and therefore both speeds relative to you, at .5c and 0c. The particle would act as if it was going both directions, and therefore would experience normal time due to being stationary, and slower time due to going forward.
My relativity knowledge isn't as good as my quantum mechanics knowledge (I know the particle wouldn't travel exactly .25c either way because of time dilation relative to the ship, so I'm taking liberties with this argument already) but theoretically, would the particle now exist in multiple time-frames? And therefore, would the particle be in not only two places at once, but also at two TIMES at once? (ironic statement, as understanding arguments of simultaneity is the major starting point in studying time dilation.)
I'm probably wrong in this theory, but I feel that when you collapsed the wave function on one end, you have sent information across time. If anyone would be able to explain why I'm misunderstanding it, that would be great.