- #1
Citizen247
Hello, recently elsewhere on the interwebs I was subjected to a discussion on whether it is possible to travel faster the light under relativity. My general rule of thumb is that if you ever think you've found a way to travel FTL under relativity then you don't understand relativity. Especially on the internet, because some guy from somewhere with a degree in talking gibberish is unlikely to have done in their bedroom what some of the smartest physics doctorates have dedicated their lives to do in some of the most sophisticated laboratories ever built.
My dilemma is, though, that I'm fairly sure I'm wrong and don't understand relativity, even if I'm also certain I'm less wrong than others, but that's a hard position to argue a point from. I'm pretty sure trollers are going to troll, so have already written off the originator of this "argument" but I'd like to learn something myself. So was hoping that someone more knowledgeable than me could explain the following scenario presented to me as "proof" (their words) that you can travel faster than light :
A spacecraft leaves its source point at 1g and accelerates for 10 years. It then flips around and decelerates for a further 10 years at 1g. To the crew, they have traveled for 20 years but their source point is much further away than 20 ly, so they have traveled FTL.
My rough calculations indicate that the ship would be about 340ly from its source point and would have taken about 344 years to get there, according to an outside observer. My belief is that in order to come to the conclusion that the ship traveled FTL, you have to cherry pick measurements taken in different frames of reference, which makes that conclusion meaningless. The rebuttal was that this is not the case because "the ship returns to its original IRF".
I'm pretty sure this is complete nonsense, but I'm not confident enough in my own understanding to say why.
My dilemma is, though, that I'm fairly sure I'm wrong and don't understand relativity, even if I'm also certain I'm less wrong than others, but that's a hard position to argue a point from. I'm pretty sure trollers are going to troll, so have already written off the originator of this "argument" but I'd like to learn something myself. So was hoping that someone more knowledgeable than me could explain the following scenario presented to me as "proof" (their words) that you can travel faster than light :
A spacecraft leaves its source point at 1g and accelerates for 10 years. It then flips around and decelerates for a further 10 years at 1g. To the crew, they have traveled for 20 years but their source point is much further away than 20 ly, so they have traveled FTL.
My rough calculations indicate that the ship would be about 340ly from its source point and would have taken about 344 years to get there, according to an outside observer. My belief is that in order to come to the conclusion that the ship traveled FTL, you have to cherry pick measurements taken in different frames of reference, which makes that conclusion meaningless. The rebuttal was that this is not the case because "the ship returns to its original IRF".
I'm pretty sure this is complete nonsense, but I'm not confident enough in my own understanding to say why.