- #1
mimpim
- 5
- 0
Hi,
Consider model of one dimensional spin chain with a random couplings J. The Hamiltonian is the following:
$$ H = \sum_i J_i (S_i^x S_{i+1}^x+ S_i^y S_{i+1}^y)$$,
Which by Jordan-Wigner transformation we can transform it to the fermionic representations.
$$ H = \sum_i J_j/2 (c_i c_{i+1}^{\dagger}+h.c)$$.
My question is can we solve this model exactly? (I know when the couplings J are constant we can solve this model exactly and have analytic solution. But how about when we have a random couplings)
I appreciate any help and comment.
Consider model of one dimensional spin chain with a random couplings J. The Hamiltonian is the following:
$$ H = \sum_i J_i (S_i^x S_{i+1}^x+ S_i^y S_{i+1}^y)$$,
Which by Jordan-Wigner transformation we can transform it to the fermionic representations.
$$ H = \sum_i J_j/2 (c_i c_{i+1}^{\dagger}+h.c)$$.
My question is can we solve this model exactly? (I know when the couplings J are constant we can solve this model exactly and have analytic solution. But how about when we have a random couplings)
I appreciate any help and comment.