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fluidistic
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Homework Statement
I've been told that the operator ##\hat n \cdot \hat {\vec L}## has the same eigenvalues as ##L_z##. Later I've been told that it has the same eigenvalues as any component of ##\hat {\vec L}##. But I am a bit confused, as far as I understand the eigenvalues of ##L_x##, ##L_y## and ##L_z## cannot be the same at the same time. Hmm now that I think about it, if ##L_z## has eigenvalues ##\hbar m##, then both ##L_x## and ##L_y## have no eigenvalues? This is impossible... I am missing something.
I ask this because I found a problem that more or less states that if ##|l,m>## is an eigenvector of both ##\hat L## and ##\hat L_z##, then find the coefficients ##c_i## in function of ##\theta## and ##\phi## such that ##|\psi>=c_1 |1,1>+c_0 |1,0>+c_{-1}|1,-1>## is an eigenvector of ##\hat n \cdot \hat {\vec L}##.
Homework Equations
##\hat A \psi =\lambda \psi##.
The Attempt at a Solution
I think I know a way how to tackle the problem. I'd write ##\hat n =\cos \phi \sin \theta \hat i + \cos \phi \cos \theta \hat j + \cos \theta \hat k##. Then write ##\hat {\vec L}=L_x \hat i + L_y \hat j + L_z \hat k##. Then write ##L_x## and ##L_y## in terms of ##L_{\pm}## because I know how they act on ##|1,m>##
With all this in mind I could write the left side of the following equation: ##(\hat n \cdot \hat {\vec L}) |\psi >= \lambda |\psi>##.
What I did not know is that apparently I could take ##\lambda = 0##, ##\hbar## or ##-\hbar##.