- #1
JonnyMaddox
- 74
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In Frankel's book he writes that in [itex]R^{3}[/itex] with cartesian coordinates, you can always associate to a vector [itex]\vec{v}[/itex] a 1-form [itex]v^{1}dx^{1}+v^{2}dx^{2}+v^{3}dx^{3}[/itex] and a two form [itex]v^{1}dx^{2}\wedge dx^{3}+v^{2}dx^{3}\wedge dx^{1} +v^{3}dx^{1} \wedge dx^{2}[/itex], now in general this is not possible and you have to convert the components of a vector with a metric to get covariant components, for example like this [itex]v_{i}=g_{ij}v^{j}[/itex]
Then he asks what is in general the associated 2-form for [itex]\vec{v}[/itex] ? He then proofs that to a vector [itex]\vec{v}[/itex] one does associate a pseudo-2-form [itex]\beta^{2}:= \iota_{\vec{v}}vol^{3}[/itex] Later when he discusses the cross product he writes that one would like to say that [itex]v^{1} \wedge \omega^{1}[/itex] is the 2-form associated to the vector [itex]\vec{v} \times \vec{w}[/itex], but we only have a pseudo-2-form associated to a vector thus the pseudovector [itex]\vec{v} \times \vec{w}[/itex] is associated to the 2-form [itex]v^{1} \wedge \omega^{1}[/itex] (which is just a flip flop of words I think).
Now is it true that if we have other coordinates than cartesian, one can only associate pseudo-forms to a vector? Because in the text he calls the forms in cartesian coordiantes just forms, but in general he says pseudo-forms.
For example (everything in cartesian coord.) when I have a simple vector field [itex]v=3x \partial_{x}+4x \partial_{y}[/itex] then according to the formula [itex]\beta^{1}= \iota_{v}vol^{2}= 3xdy-4ydx[/itex] is the associated pseudo-1-form. Now what about the form [itex]\gamma^{1}=3x dx + 4y dy[/itex] isn't that the 1-form associated to the vector field? And [itex]\gamma^{2}= 3x dy \wedge dz+4y dz \wedge dx[/itex] should be the associated 2-form, but at the same time there should also be an associated pseudo-2-form [itex]3x dx\wedge dy -4y dx \wedge dz[/itex] according to the formula and if I calculated right. Now does this in general mean (none-cart.) that I have only pseudo-forms associated to vectorfields ??
Then he asks what is in general the associated 2-form for [itex]\vec{v}[/itex] ? He then proofs that to a vector [itex]\vec{v}[/itex] one does associate a pseudo-2-form [itex]\beta^{2}:= \iota_{\vec{v}}vol^{3}[/itex] Later when he discusses the cross product he writes that one would like to say that [itex]v^{1} \wedge \omega^{1}[/itex] is the 2-form associated to the vector [itex]\vec{v} \times \vec{w}[/itex], but we only have a pseudo-2-form associated to a vector thus the pseudovector [itex]\vec{v} \times \vec{w}[/itex] is associated to the 2-form [itex]v^{1} \wedge \omega^{1}[/itex] (which is just a flip flop of words I think).
Now is it true that if we have other coordinates than cartesian, one can only associate pseudo-forms to a vector? Because in the text he calls the forms in cartesian coordiantes just forms, but in general he says pseudo-forms.
For example (everything in cartesian coord.) when I have a simple vector field [itex]v=3x \partial_{x}+4x \partial_{y}[/itex] then according to the formula [itex]\beta^{1}= \iota_{v}vol^{2}= 3xdy-4ydx[/itex] is the associated pseudo-1-form. Now what about the form [itex]\gamma^{1}=3x dx + 4y dy[/itex] isn't that the 1-form associated to the vector field? And [itex]\gamma^{2}= 3x dy \wedge dz+4y dz \wedge dx[/itex] should be the associated 2-form, but at the same time there should also be an associated pseudo-2-form [itex]3x dx\wedge dy -4y dx \wedge dz[/itex] according to the formula and if I calculated right. Now does this in general mean (none-cart.) that I have only pseudo-forms associated to vectorfields ??
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