Can x=8sin2t+6cos2t be proven as S.H.M. using a second derivative?

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The equation x = 8sin(2t) + 6cos(2t) can be proven to undergo simple harmonic motion (S.H.M.) by taking its second derivative. The first derivative is dx/dt = 20cos(2t + tan^(-1)(3/4)), and the second derivative is d²x/dt² = -40sin(2t + tan^(-1)(3/4)). This shows that the motion is periodic and can be expressed in the form x = Csin(ωt + φ), confirming it is S.H.M. The coefficients of sine and cosine yield the same angular frequency, ω² = 4, which is crucial for establishing S.H.M. Thus, the original equation meets the criteria for simple harmonic motion.
Cpt Qwark
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Homework Statement


Prove that:
x=8sin2t+6cos2t is undergoing S.H.M.
(Not too sure about how to prove for solution.)

Homework Equations


Solution for S.H.M. x=asin(nt+α) is \frac{d^{2}x}{dy^{2}}=-n^2x

The Attempt at a Solution


r=\sqrt{8^{2}+6^{2}}=10\\α=tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4}\\∴x=10sin(2t+tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4})
Differentiating with respect to time: \frac{dx}{dt}=20cos(2t+tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4})\\\frac{d^{2}x}{dt^{2}}=-40sin(2t+tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4})
 
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Cpt Qwark said:
Solution for S.H.M. x=asin(nt+α) is \frac{d^{2}x}{dy^{2}}=-n^2x

...

∴x=10sin(2t+tan^{-1}\frac{3}{4})
Right. Adding any two sinusoidal functions of the same frequency will result in another sinusoidal function, regardless of their amplitudes.

If you solve the SHM differential equation, \frac{d^2x}{dt^2}=-kx you will get x=C_1\sin(\sqrt{k}t)+C_2\cos(\sqrt{k}t) and it because of the above fact that you can write the solution as x=C_3\sin(\sqrt{k}t+C_4)
 
Last edited:
Cpt Qwark said:

Homework Statement


Prove that:
x = 8sin2t+6cos2t is undergoing S.H.M.
You can just take this equation, compute x', then x'', and see that ω2 must = 4 by equating sine and cosine coefficients. Both yield the same answer ω2 = 4. Had the sine & cosine coeff. yielded differing ω then x(t) would not be shm.
 
Take the second derivative of the given expression and express it in terms of x. The result would eliminate sin and cos and will prove your answer in form of a=-nx.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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