Can You Solve This Challenging Functional Equation?

  • Thread starter LCSphysicist
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In summary, the conversation is about the function f(x) and its properties, specifically in relation to the equation $$f(xf(y) + f(x)) + f(y^2) = f(x) + yf(x + y)$$. Several possible solutions are discussed, including f(x) = x, f(x) = 0, and f(x) = cx. It is suggested to use Taylor expansion and the properties of f(0) to find the only possible solution. However, it is noted that this approach is not valid as f may not be continuous. The conversation ends with the suggestion to explore the function f(x) further.
  • #36
William Crawford said:
Let ##c## be a rational number (possibly irrational), then there exist a sequence ##\{q_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}## of purely rational numbers that converges to ##c##. Therefore (assuming ##f## is continuous)
$$
\begin{align*}
f(cx) &= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}f(q_nx) \\
&= \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}q_nf(x) \\
&= cf(x)
\end{align*}
$$
and thus ##f(ax+by) = af(x) + bf(y)## is true even when ##a## and ##b## are irrational.

I guess I didn’t make it explicit, but I was asking about the case where we drop the assumption of continuity.
 
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  • #37
stevendaryl said:
I guess I didn’t make it explicit, but I was asking about the case where we drop the assumption of continuity.
If we plug f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y) back into the original equation,
##f(xf(y))+f(f(x))+yf(y)=f(x)+yf(x)+yf(y)##
##f(xf(y))=yf(x)##
We know that f(1) is either 0 or 1. If it is 1, setting x=1:
##f(f(y))=y##
But we already know f(f(y))=f(y), so f(y)=y.
If f(1)=0, f(f(y))=0, so f(y)=0.

So either f(x)=x for all x or f(x)=0 for all x,
 
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