- #1
ognik
- 643
- 2
Book states: $\nabla f\left(u, v\right) =0 = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\nabla u + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v} \nabla v, \therefore \nabla u$ and $ \nabla v $ are parallel
1. I know $d f\left(u, v\right) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}du + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v} dv$, but how can we just replace the d<...> by $\nabla <... >$ like that? seems a little circular?
2. Can't anyway see how that makes them parallel?
I get $ =\frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\left( \pd{u}{x}, \pd{u}{y},\d{u}{z}\right) + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v}\left( \pd{v}{x}, \pd{v}{y},\d{v}{z}\right)
= \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right) + \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right)$ so both tterms are equal and parallel, but why does that make the $\nabla$ parts parallel?
1. I know $d f\left(u, v\right) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial u}du + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v} dv$, but how can we just replace the d<...> by $\nabla <... >$ like that? seems a little circular?
2. Can't anyway see how that makes them parallel?
I get $ =\frac{\partial f}{\partial u}\left( \pd{u}{x}, \pd{u}{y},\d{u}{z}\right) + \frac{\partial f}{\partial v}\left( \pd{v}{x}, \pd{v}{y},\d{v}{z}\right)
= \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right) + \left( \pd{f}{x}, \pd{f}{y},\d{f}{z}\right)$ so both tterms are equal and parallel, but why does that make the $\nabla$ parts parallel?