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NoahsArk
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- Why was the Invention of Cartesian space such a jump forward?
For a while I've been trying to get a better understanding of how Descartes' invention of Cartesian space revolutionized math. It seems like an invention on par with the invention of agriculture in how it led to human progress. I am still having trouble, though, pinpointing examples of what can be done in Cartesian space that can't be done in Euclidean space, or which can only be done with much greater difficulty in Euclidean space than it can be in Euclidean space. Part of my confusion might be conceptual, and the other part might come from not knowing the history.
I'm reading the book, Infinite Ascent: A Short History of Mathematics, where there is a chapter on analytical geometry which discusses the invention of Cartesian space. Euclidean space had points just like Cartesian space does, but in Cartesian space the points have a pair of x y coordinates. The author talks about how the invention of a "map of the world" preceded the invention of Cartesian space (and maybe this was partly an inspiration to invent Cartesian space?). Here is a quote from the book:
"With the introduction of points having coordinates, and a formula for distance, the first step in a great drama of identification begins: If points correspond to pairs of numbers, there is no reason that geometrical figures more complicated than points- lines and curves - might not correspond to mathematical objects more complicated than pairs of numbers. The geometrical world then becomes coordinated with the world of numbers. A straight line in a Euclidean plane is simple a straight line, of no address, and in no way distinguished from any other straight line. In a Cartesian plane they get the dignity of a fixed identity. Two numbers are again required: slope and intercept."
The above I found very thought provoking. I paused reading the book, though, to try and find concrete examples of what can be done now that couldn't have been in Euclidean space. For example, there were also lines in Euclidean space, and you could find the distance of lines using the Pythagorean theorem. Cartesian space seems to have led to the distance formula for finding the distance between two points, but why couldn't this have been done in Euclidean space? Is it because you'd have to physically measure the horizontal and vertical distances corresponding to a diagonal line (i.e. the A and B sides of the triangle) before you could use the Pythagorean theorem to calculate its distance? In Cartesian space the two points both already have coordinates from which you can get the vertical and horizontal distance between the points, but in order to assign coordinates in the first place you still need to do some form of measurement.
Another example is finding area, say under a line like y = 2x at the point x =4. The height at that point is 8 and the base is four so you can use the triangle formula for area to get an area of 16. The Greeks knew how to do this already, though.
Also, the very concept of having a pair of numbers describing horizontal and vertical distance seems to far pre-date Descartes. The system of latitude and longitude, for example, was invented by Eratosthenes in the third century BC.
So, I'm still trying to get a better understanding of what made the invention of Cartesian space such a leap.
I'm reading the book, Infinite Ascent: A Short History of Mathematics, where there is a chapter on analytical geometry which discusses the invention of Cartesian space. Euclidean space had points just like Cartesian space does, but in Cartesian space the points have a pair of x y coordinates. The author talks about how the invention of a "map of the world" preceded the invention of Cartesian space (and maybe this was partly an inspiration to invent Cartesian space?). Here is a quote from the book:
"With the introduction of points having coordinates, and a formula for distance, the first step in a great drama of identification begins: If points correspond to pairs of numbers, there is no reason that geometrical figures more complicated than points- lines and curves - might not correspond to mathematical objects more complicated than pairs of numbers. The geometrical world then becomes coordinated with the world of numbers. A straight line in a Euclidean plane is simple a straight line, of no address, and in no way distinguished from any other straight line. In a Cartesian plane they get the dignity of a fixed identity. Two numbers are again required: slope and intercept."
The above I found very thought provoking. I paused reading the book, though, to try and find concrete examples of what can be done now that couldn't have been in Euclidean space. For example, there were also lines in Euclidean space, and you could find the distance of lines using the Pythagorean theorem. Cartesian space seems to have led to the distance formula for finding the distance between two points, but why couldn't this have been done in Euclidean space? Is it because you'd have to physically measure the horizontal and vertical distances corresponding to a diagonal line (i.e. the A and B sides of the triangle) before you could use the Pythagorean theorem to calculate its distance? In Cartesian space the two points both already have coordinates from which you can get the vertical and horizontal distance between the points, but in order to assign coordinates in the first place you still need to do some form of measurement.
Another example is finding area, say under a line like y = 2x at the point x =4. The height at that point is 8 and the base is four so you can use the triangle formula for area to get an area of 16. The Greeks knew how to do this already, though.
Also, the very concept of having a pair of numbers describing horizontal and vertical distance seems to far pre-date Descartes. The system of latitude and longitude, for example, was invented by Eratosthenes in the third century BC.
So, I'm still trying to get a better understanding of what made the invention of Cartesian space such a leap.