- #1
Steve Zissou
- 64
- 2
- TL;DR Summary
- This is harder than it seems.
Hi friends,
Can anyone offer some insight into this challenging integral?
I can't seem to think my way through this.
Thank you
Stevesie
$$ \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}\exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}\left( \frac{\log\left( x \right)-\mu}{\sigma}\right)^{2} \right)\exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}\left( \frac{ x -\alpha}{\beta}\right)^{2} \right)dx=??? $$
Can anyone offer some insight into this challenging integral?
I can't seem to think my way through this.
Thank you
Stevesie
$$ \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}\exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}\left( \frac{\log\left( x \right)-\mu}{\sigma}\right)^{2} \right)\exp\left(-\frac{1}{2}\left( \frac{ x -\alpha}{\beta}\right)^{2} \right)dx=??? $$
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