- #1
kurious
- 641
- 0
Is it alright to say that force = rate of change of relativistic momentum
F = [ m0 v2 / (1 - v2^2/c^2)^1/2 - m0 v1/(1 - v1^2/c^2)^1/2 )] / (t2 - t1)
and can this relation be used to get sensible results for particles?
F = [ m0 v2 / (1 - v2^2/c^2)^1/2 - m0 v1/(1 - v1^2/c^2)^1/2 )] / (t2 - t1)
and can this relation be used to get sensible results for particles?
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