- #1
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
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Hello! (Wave)
Is it true that for a vector field $\vec{F}$, a function $f$ such that $\vec{F}=\nabla{f}$ can exist only if $\text{ curl } \vec{F}=\nabla \times \vec{F}=\vec{0}$ ?
How can we check it? (Thinking)
Is it true that for a vector field $\vec{F}$, a function $f$ such that $\vec{F}=\nabla{f}$ can exist only if $\text{ curl } \vec{F}=\nabla \times \vec{F}=\vec{0}$ ?
How can we check it? (Thinking)