- #1
CaptainDave
- 1
- 0
If the coefficient of friction is derived by f=un...
and u can be calculated as u=sinx/cosx or tanx;
Then why is there still friction on a level surface where x=0 and tanx also equals 0?
Im a beginner in physics. i just need help understanding
and u can be calculated as u=sinx/cosx or tanx;
Then why is there still friction on a level surface where x=0 and tanx also equals 0?
Im a beginner in physics. i just need help understanding