- #1
naima
Gold Member
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- 54
Hi there
I came across this paper.
the author defines a covariant derivative in (1.3)
##D_\mu = \partial_\mu - ig A_\mu##
He defines in (1.6)
##F_{jk} = i/g [D_j,D_k]##
Why is it equal to ##\partial_j A_k - \partial_k A_j - ig [A_j, A_k]##?
I suppose that it comes from a property of Lie derivatives.
Thanks
I came across this paper.
the author defines a covariant derivative in (1.3)
##D_\mu = \partial_\mu - ig A_\mu##
He defines in (1.6)
##F_{jk} = i/g [D_j,D_k]##
Why is it equal to ##\partial_j A_k - \partial_k A_j - ig [A_j, A_k]##?
I suppose that it comes from a property of Lie derivatives.
Thanks