- #1
pellman
- 684
- 5
We all know that [tex]\frac{1}{2\pi}\int{e^{ik(x-x')}dk=\delta(x-x')[/tex].
i am working a problem which appears to depend on the statement
[tex]\int e^{z^*(z-w)}dz^*\propto\delta(z-w)[/tex]
Does anyone know if this is valid?
[tex]\delta(z-w)[/tex] is defined in the usual way so that
[tex]\int{\delta(z-w)f(z)dz}=f(w)[/tex]
This is a physics problem, though, so the domain of integration is not specified and not clear to me.
i am working a problem which appears to depend on the statement
[tex]\int e^{z^*(z-w)}dz^*\propto\delta(z-w)[/tex]
Does anyone know if this is valid?
[tex]\delta(z-w)[/tex] is defined in the usual way so that
[tex]\int{\delta(z-w)f(z)dz}=f(w)[/tex]
This is a physics problem, though, so the domain of integration is not specified and not clear to me.