- #1
caffeinemachine
Gold Member
MHB
- 816
- 15
Let $f:\mathbf R\to \mathbf R$ be a smooth map and $g:\mathbf R\to \mathbf R$ be defined as $g(x)=f(x^{1/3})$ for all $x\in \mathbf R$.
Problem. Then $g$ is smooth if and only if $f^{(n)}(0)$ is $0$ whenever $n$ is not an integral multiple of $3$.
One direction is easy. Assume $g$ is smooth. Then we have $f(x)=g(x^3)$ for all $x$. Differentiating and using the chain rule gives that the required derivatives of $f$ vanish.
I am struggling with the converse. Assume $f^{(n)}(0)=0$ whenever $n$ is not an integral multiple of $3$. We need to show that $g$ is smooth. Since $x^{1/3}$ is smooth at all points except $x=0$, we see that $g$ too is so. So the only problem is at $0$. I am only able to show that the first derivative of $g$ at $0$ exists. Here is what I have done.
Let $x>0$ be arbitrary. By Taylor we know that
$$f(x)= f(0)+f'(0)x+ \frac{f''(0)}{2}x^2+ \frac{f''(\lambda_x x)}{6}x^3$$
for some $0<\lambda_x<1$.
This gives by hypothesis that
$$f(x) - f(0) = \frac{f''(\lambda_x x)}{6}x^3$$
Thus
$$g(x)-g(0)=\frac{f'''(\lambda_{x^{1/3}} x^{1/3})}{6} x$$
and therefore
$$\frac{g(x)-g(0)}{x}=\frac{f'''(\lambda_{x^{1/3}} x^{1/3})}{6}$$
Since $\lim_{x\to 0}f'''(\lambda_{x^{1/3}} x^{1/3}))$ exists, we see that $g'(0)$ exists.
But I am not able to extend this argument to show that $g''(0)$ etc. also exist.
Problem. Then $g$ is smooth if and only if $f^{(n)}(0)$ is $0$ whenever $n$ is not an integral multiple of $3$.
One direction is easy. Assume $g$ is smooth. Then we have $f(x)=g(x^3)$ for all $x$. Differentiating and using the chain rule gives that the required derivatives of $f$ vanish.
I am struggling with the converse. Assume $f^{(n)}(0)=0$ whenever $n$ is not an integral multiple of $3$. We need to show that $g$ is smooth. Since $x^{1/3}$ is smooth at all points except $x=0$, we see that $g$ too is so. So the only problem is at $0$. I am only able to show that the first derivative of $g$ at $0$ exists. Here is what I have done.
Let $x>0$ be arbitrary. By Taylor we know that
$$f(x)= f(0)+f'(0)x+ \frac{f''(0)}{2}x^2+ \frac{f''(\lambda_x x)}{6}x^3$$
for some $0<\lambda_x<1$.
This gives by hypothesis that
$$f(x) - f(0) = \frac{f''(\lambda_x x)}{6}x^3$$
Thus
$$g(x)-g(0)=\frac{f'''(\lambda_{x^{1/3}} x^{1/3})}{6} x$$
and therefore
$$\frac{g(x)-g(0)}{x}=\frac{f'''(\lambda_{x^{1/3}} x^{1/3})}{6}$$
Since $\lim_{x\to 0}f'''(\lambda_{x^{1/3}} x^{1/3}))$ exists, we see that $g'(0)$ exists.
But I am not able to extend this argument to show that $g''(0)$ etc. also exist.