- #1
mupsi
- 32
- 1
Hi,
my problem: following the adiabatic theorem we get an equation for the coefficients:
[itex]
\dot{a}_{m}=-a_{m} \langle{\psi_{m}} | \dot{\psi}_{m}\rangle - \sum_{n \neq m} \frac{\langle \psi_{m} | \dot{H}| \psi_{m}\rangle}{E_{n}-E_{m}} exp(\int_ 0^t E_{n}(t')-E_{m}(t') \, dt')
[/itex]
we start in an eigenstate m. When the gap is large and the time derivative of H is small. We can neglect the sum and get for the coefficent m:
[itex]
a_m^0= a_m(0) exp(-i \gamma_m (t))
[/itex]
so far so good. Now we want to determine the 1st order coefficients and make the ansatz:
[itex]
a_m= a_m^0 + a_m^1
[/itex]
and we get:
[itex]
a_m^1= \sum_{n \neq m} \frac{\langle \psi_{m} | \dot{H}| \psi_{m}\rangle}{(E_{n}-E_{m})^2} a_n^0 exp(\int_ 0^t E_{n}(t')-E_{m}(t') \, dt')
[/itex]
the last step is problematic. It's been a while since I used perturbation theory and I don't know how you get this result. The computation time should be:
[itex]
t<<\frac{\langle \psi_{m} | \dot{H}| \psi_{m}\rangle}{(E_{n}-E_{m})^2}
[/itex]
which is clear once you obtain the result above. Can anyone help?
my problem: following the adiabatic theorem we get an equation for the coefficients:
[itex]
\dot{a}_{m}=-a_{m} \langle{\psi_{m}} | \dot{\psi}_{m}\rangle - \sum_{n \neq m} \frac{\langle \psi_{m} | \dot{H}| \psi_{m}\rangle}{E_{n}-E_{m}} exp(\int_ 0^t E_{n}(t')-E_{m}(t') \, dt')
[/itex]
we start in an eigenstate m. When the gap is large and the time derivative of H is small. We can neglect the sum and get for the coefficent m:
[itex]
a_m^0= a_m(0) exp(-i \gamma_m (t))
[/itex]
so far so good. Now we want to determine the 1st order coefficients and make the ansatz:
[itex]
a_m= a_m^0 + a_m^1
[/itex]
and we get:
[itex]
a_m^1= \sum_{n \neq m} \frac{\langle \psi_{m} | \dot{H}| \psi_{m}\rangle}{(E_{n}-E_{m})^2} a_n^0 exp(\int_ 0^t E_{n}(t')-E_{m}(t') \, dt')
[/itex]
the last step is problematic. It's been a while since I used perturbation theory and I don't know how you get this result. The computation time should be:
[itex]
t<<\frac{\langle \psi_{m} | \dot{H}| \psi_{m}\rangle}{(E_{n}-E_{m})^2}
[/itex]
which is clear once you obtain the result above. Can anyone help?