- #1
Avichal
- 295
- 0
P(A/B) is defined to be P(A∩B)/P(B)
Why is this true?
When A and B are dependent events, I can understand why this is correct. It is clear when you see the venn diagram.
But for independent events, why is the formula correct? Any intuition or formal proof?
Why is this true?
When A and B are dependent events, I can understand why this is correct. It is clear when you see the venn diagram.
But for independent events, why is the formula correct? Any intuition or formal proof?