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noboost4you
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My professor really threw a curve ball at me the other day with this problem, and unfortuneately, I have no idea where to begin. Any help would be greatly appreciated.
In the following problem, all the n's are subdomains of the leading coefficent, along with the f#. f(sub 0), f(sub 1), etc..f(sub n+2), f(sub n+1), f(sub n)...a(sub n)
Let fn be the Fibonacci sequence, i.e.:
{f0 = f1 = 1
{fn+2 = fn+1 + fn, for every n >= 0
Define now a new sequence, {an}, given by an = fn+1 / fn
(a) show that an+1 = 1 + (1/an)
(b) assuming that {an}infinity n=1 is convergent, find lim(n->inf) an.
Please offer any kind of assistance you can. Thanks
In the following problem, all the n's are subdomains of the leading coefficent, along with the f#. f(sub 0), f(sub 1), etc..f(sub n+2), f(sub n+1), f(sub n)...a(sub n)
Let fn be the Fibonacci sequence, i.e.:
{f0 = f1 = 1
{fn+2 = fn+1 + fn, for every n >= 0
Define now a new sequence, {an}, given by an = fn+1 / fn
(a) show that an+1 = 1 + (1/an)
(b) assuming that {an}infinity n=1 is convergent, find lim(n->inf) an.
Please offer any kind of assistance you can. Thanks