- #1
torquerotates
- 207
- 0
A function is uniformly continuous iff for every epsilon>0 there exists delta>0 such that for all x in the domain of f and for all y in the domain of f, |x-y|<delta =>|f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon. Here is what confuses me. How can there be a delta such that |x-y|<delta for ALL x and y. Since epsilon depends on delta, we can pick epsilon such that delta is small. Then we can surely pick x and y such x-y is bigger than delta.
For example, x^2 is uniformly continuous on [-5,5] because for epsilon>0, when delta=epsilon/10, |x^2-y^2|<|x+y||x-y|< or = 10|x-y|<10*delta=epsilon.
Right here delta=epsilon/10. The definition states that for ANY x,y in domain f, |x-y|<delta. If we pick x=5 and y=1 we have 4<epsilon/10 for any epsilon>0. But that is impossible since I can pick epsilon=1.
4<(1/10) is not true.
For example, x^2 is uniformly continuous on [-5,5] because for epsilon>0, when delta=epsilon/10, |x^2-y^2|<|x+y||x-y|< or = 10|x-y|<10*delta=epsilon.
Right here delta=epsilon/10. The definition states that for ANY x,y in domain f, |x-y|<delta. If we pick x=5 and y=1 we have 4<epsilon/10 for any epsilon>0. But that is impossible since I can pick epsilon=1.
4<(1/10) is not true.