- #1
hadron23
- 28
- 1
Hello,
I was curious about the following point. I know that if a function is monotone, then it is one to one (meaning for x1 != x2, then f(x1) != f(x2) ).
But what about the converse? I can't seem to think of a counter-example.
I was curious about the following point. I know that if a function is monotone, then it is one to one (meaning for x1 != x2, then f(x1) != f(x2) ).
But what about the converse? I can't seem to think of a counter-example.