- #1
dopeyranger
- 6
- 0
Hello fellow mathematicians/computer-scientists!
I have a question:
If a subset of a language is not context free, does that mean the language itself is not context-free?
For example, I want to show that the following is not context free, using the pumping lemma:
L = {[itex]\omega[/itex] [itex]\in[/itex] {a,b,c}* | [itex]\omega[/itex] has an equal # of a's, b's, and c's}
And since T ={[itex]a^{n}b^{n}c^{n}[/itex] | n [itex]\geq[/itex] 0} [itex]\subset[/itex] L
If I show that T is not context free, does that show that L is not context free?
I have a question:
If a subset of a language is not context free, does that mean the language itself is not context-free?
For example, I want to show that the following is not context free, using the pumping lemma:
L = {[itex]\omega[/itex] [itex]\in[/itex] {a,b,c}* | [itex]\omega[/itex] has an equal # of a's, b's, and c's}
And since T ={[itex]a^{n}b^{n}c^{n}[/itex] | n [itex]\geq[/itex] 0} [itex]\subset[/itex] L
If I show that T is not context free, does that show that L is not context free?