- #1
bsmithysmith
- 23
- 0
I just started Calculus 1, a summer quarter that's compressed and I'm having trouble understanding a theorem that state continuity of the inverse function. Within my textbook, it mentions "If f(x) is continuous on an interval I with range R, and if inverse f(x) exists, then the inverse f(x) is continuos with domain R".
Not understanding it too much, but from what I can derive from it is that when a function has an inverse, it follows the same rules of the function; if that makes sense.
Lets say:
\(\displaystyle y=\frac{-2}{x-5}\)
and the inverse
\(\displaystyle y=\frac{5x-2}{x}\)
Then they both are continuous with their domains R. Maybe I'm not getting it, or can't put it in words, but it's a little confusing to me. They are the same equations, although inverses, but follow the same properties of continuity.
I need simplification because I also don't understand what I'm talking about, myself.
Not understanding it too much, but from what I can derive from it is that when a function has an inverse, it follows the same rules of the function; if that makes sense.
Lets say:
\(\displaystyle y=\frac{-2}{x-5}\)
and the inverse
\(\displaystyle y=\frac{5x-2}{x}\)
Then they both are continuous with their domains R. Maybe I'm not getting it, or can't put it in words, but it's a little confusing to me. They are the same equations, although inverses, but follow the same properties of continuity.
I need simplification because I also don't understand what I'm talking about, myself.