Contour Integral and Cauchy's residue theorem

In summary: Oh, I didn't mean to ridicule. Sorry. But still, there is a fairly specific problem here that generalized 'group brainstorming' isn't going to... help with.
  • #1
Ted123
446
0
k0n7yx.jpg


I've tried this using the definition of a contour integral and Cauchy's residue theorem but get conflicting answers.

[itex]\displaystyle f(z) = \frac{z+1}{z(2z-1)(z+2)}[/itex]

We can parametrise the contour [itex]\gamma[/itex] (the unit circle) by [itex]\gamma(t) = e^{it}[/itex] for [itex]t \in [0, 2\pi ][/itex]

So by the definition of a contour integral

10y07kp.jpg


[itex]2\pi i \times I = \displaystyle \int^{2\pi}_0 \frac{e^{it}+1}{2e^{3it} + 3e^{2it} - 2e^{it}} \times ie^{it}\;dt = \frac{\pi i}{5}[/itex]

But using the residue therem

1fa3qx.jpg


[itex]\displaystyle \text{res}(f,0) = -\frac{1}{2}[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \text{res} \left( f,\frac{1}{2} \right) = \frac{6}{5}[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \text{res} (f,-2) = -\frac{1}{10}[/itex]

[itex]\gamma[/itex] wraps once (in the negative direction) around [itex]z=0[/itex] and [itex]z=\frac{1}{2}[/itex] so [itex]n (\gamma, 0) = n (\gamma, \frac{1}{2}) = -1[/itex] and [itex]n (\gamma, -2) = 0[/itex]

So [itex]\displaystyle 2\pi i \times I = 2\pi i \left(-\frac{1}{2} \times -1 + \frac{6}{5} \times -1 \right) = -\frac{7\pi i}{5}[/itex]

which is not what I got before.
 
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  • #2
Ted123 said:
k0n7yx.jpg


I've tried this using the definition of a contour integral and Cauchy's residue theorem but get conflicting answers.

[itex]\displaystyle f(z) = \frac{z+1}{z(2z-1)(z+2)}[/itex]

We can parametrise the contour [itex]\gamma[/itex] (the unit circle) by [itex]\gamma(t) = e^{it}[/itex] for [itex]t \in [0, 2\pi ][/itex]

So by the definition of a contour integral

10y07kp.jpg


[itex]2\pi i \times I = \displaystyle \int^{2\pi}_0 \frac{e^{it}+1}{2e^{3it} + 3e^{2it} - 2e^{it}} \times ie^{it}\;dt = \frac{\pi i}{5}[/itex]

But using the residue therem

1fa3qx.jpg


[itex]\displaystyle \text{res}(f,0) = -\frac{1}{2}[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \text{res} \left( f,\frac{1}{2} \right) = \frac{6}{5}[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \text{res} (f,-2) = -\frac{1}{10}[/itex]

[itex]\gamma[/itex] wraps once (in the negative direction) around [itex]z=0[/itex] and [itex]z=\frac{1}{2}[/itex] so [itex]n (\gamma, 0) = n (\gamma, \frac{1}{2}) = -1[/itex] and [itex]n (\gamma, -2) = 0[/itex]

So [itex]\displaystyle 2\pi i \times I = 2\pi i \left(-\frac{1}{2} \times -1 + \frac{6}{5} \times -1 \right) = -\frac{7\pi i}{5}[/itex]

which is not what I got before.

You are going around counterclockwise. I don't think that makes the winding number -1. And Res(f,1/2) isn't 6/5. Can you show how you got that?
 
  • #3
You have to use the residue theorem in this case because of the singularity at z = 0. Assuming the residues were calculated correctly, the second answer is correct.
 
  • #4
tylerc1991 said:
You have to use the residue theorem in this case because of the singularity at z = 0. Assuming the residues were calculated correctly, the second answer is correct.

You don't HAVE to use residues. The answer in the first method is correct. Though I don't know how it was done. Probably by typing into Wolfram Alpha or something. And the residues aren't correct. That's the big problem. Sometimes I think it should be a rule here that people actually work a problem out before feeling qualified to give advice.
 
  • #5
Dick said:
You don't HAVE to use residues. The answer in the first method is correct. Though I don't know how it was done. Probably by typing into Wolfram Alpha or something. And the residues aren't correct. That's the big problem. Sometimes I think it should be a rule here that people actually work a problem out before feeling qualified to give advice.

I completely agree with you, and it was a hasty comment to make on my behalf. On the other hand, seeing as how the number of people who answer questions seem to be fairly outnumbered (at least from what I have seen), the process would completely clog up if it were required to work a problem out before commenting. While one person takes the time to work a problem out, 5 more have been posted, etc. Often times, people just need a slight push in the right direction, which doesn't involve someone working the entire problem. This is how group brainstorming works. Of course this doesn't apply in this case because my comment wasn't helpful, but the principle still holds. That said, I will keep your comment in mind next time I think about commenting so as to avoid ridicule.
 
  • #6
tylerc1991 said:
I completely agree with you, and it was a hasty comment to make on my behalf. On the other hand, seeing as how the number of people who answer questions seem to be fairly outnumbered (at least from what I have seen), the process would completely clog up if it were required to work a problem out before commenting. While one person takes the time to work a problem out, 5 more have been posted, etc. Often times, people just need a slight push in the right direction, which doesn't involve someone working the entire problem. This is how group brainstorming works. Of course this doesn't apply in this case because my comment wasn't helpful, but the principle still holds. That said, I will keep your comment in mind next time I think about commenting so as to avoid ridicule.

Oh, I didn't mean to ridicule. Sorry. But still, there is a fairly specific problem here that generalized 'group brainstorming' isn't going to catch.
 
  • #7
res(f,1/2) should be 3/5 and the winding numbers should be 1 (anticlockwise means 'positively oriented'), so I think this is now correct:

[itex]\displaystyle \text{res}(f,0) = -\frac{1}{2}[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \text{res} \left( f,\frac{1}{2} \right) = \frac{3}{5}[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \text{res} (f,-2) = -\frac{1}{10}[/itex]

[itex]\gamma[/itex] wraps once (in the negative direction) around [itex]z=0[/itex] and [itex]z=\frac{1}{2}[/itex] so [itex]n (\gamma, 0) = n (\gamma, \frac{1}{2}) = 1[/itex] and [itex]n (\gamma, -2) = 0[/itex]

So [itex]\displaystyle 2\pi i \times I = 2\pi i \left(-\frac{1}{2} \times 1 + \frac{3}{5} \times 1 \right) = \frac{\pi i}{5}[/itex]

So [itex]I = \frac{1}{10}[/itex]

I typed the first integral into Wolfram Alpha merely to check whether the 2 answers agreed, which they didn't!
 

FAQ: Contour Integral and Cauchy's residue theorem

What is a contour integral?

A contour integral is a type of line integral that is used to calculate the area under a curve in the complex plane. It involves integrating a complex-valued function along a given contour or path, and the result is a complex number.

What is Cauchy's residue theorem?

Cauchy's residue theorem is a fundamental result in complex analysis that relates the value of a contour integral to the singularities of a complex function inside the contour. It states that the value of a contour integral can be calculated by summing the residues (the coefficients of the poles) of the function inside the contour.

How is Cauchy's residue theorem used in practice?

Cauchy's residue theorem is used to evaluate complex integrals that are difficult or impossible to calculate using traditional methods. It is particularly useful in calculating integrals involving trigonometric, exponential, or logarithmic functions.

What are singularities in complex analysis?

Singularities are points in the complex plane where a function is not well-defined or becomes infinite. They can be classified as removable, poles, or essential. Removable singularities can be eliminated by redefining the function, poles are points where the function becomes infinitely large, and essential singularities are points where the function has an infinite number of oscillations.

Are there any limitations to using Cauchy's residue theorem?

While Cauchy's residue theorem is a powerful tool for calculating complex integrals, it does have some limitations. It can only be applied to closed contours, and the function must be analytic (smooth and continuous) inside the contour. Additionally, the function must have a finite number of singularities inside the contour.

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