- #1
ognik
- 643
- 2
I'm rather impressed with complex analysis, but clearly I have a lot to learn.
I'm told $ \frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint {z}^{m-n-1} dz $ is a rep. of the kronecker delta function, so I tried to work through that. I used $z = re^{i\theta}$ and got to $ \frac{1}{2\pi} [\frac{{r}^{m-n}}{i(m-n)}e^{i\theta(m-n)} ]^{2\pi}_0 $
I have since found this on the web, so it seems right - all I need do is evaluate it for m=n and m \NE n ...but I'm stuck. Is there one of those nice tricks to use as the next step?
I'm told $ \frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint {z}^{m-n-1} dz $ is a rep. of the kronecker delta function, so I tried to work through that. I used $z = re^{i\theta}$ and got to $ \frac{1}{2\pi} [\frac{{r}^{m-n}}{i(m-n)}e^{i\theta(m-n)} ]^{2\pi}_0 $
I have since found this on the web, so it seems right - all I need do is evaluate it for m=n and m \NE n ...but I'm stuck. Is there one of those nice tricks to use as the next step?