- #1
onie mti
- 51
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I am given this function
$f(x)=\langle (1/9) \cos(x_1+ \sin(x_2)) , (1/6) \arctan(x_1+ x_2) \rangle$
where $x_1= \langle 0,-1 \rangle$.
may I please get hints on how to prove that this function is a contraction map
$f(x)=\langle (1/9) \cos(x_1+ \sin(x_2)) , (1/6) \arctan(x_1+ x_2) \rangle$
where $x_1= \langle 0,-1 \rangle$.
may I please get hints on how to prove that this function is a contraction map
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