- #1
hamsterman
- 74
- 0
I'm having a lot of trouble with the subject. Here's one example I'd like explained.
[tex]F(t_1, t_2) = \int \limits_0^1 x^{t_1}\ln^{t_2}\frac{1}{x} dx[/tex]
The book asks to find for what [itex]\vec{t}[/itex] F converges. The answer is [itex]\vec{t}\in(-1; \infty)^2[/itex], but I don't see how to get that.
In general, what tools are there to test convergence? The only one I know is that (assuming that only f(b) is undefined) [itex]\int_a^b f[/itex] converges if [itex]\lim \limits_{x \rightarrow b} \int_x^b f = 0[/itex].
Is it safe to assume that if [itex]g \sim f, x \rightarrow b[/itex] and [itex]\int g[/itex] converges then so does [itex]\int f[/itex]?
My book shows some tests for uniform convergence, but that's not exactly the same thing, is it?
[tex]F(t_1, t_2) = \int \limits_0^1 x^{t_1}\ln^{t_2}\frac{1}{x} dx[/tex]
The book asks to find for what [itex]\vec{t}[/itex] F converges. The answer is [itex]\vec{t}\in(-1; \infty)^2[/itex], but I don't see how to get that.
In general, what tools are there to test convergence? The only one I know is that (assuming that only f(b) is undefined) [itex]\int_a^b f[/itex] converges if [itex]\lim \limits_{x \rightarrow b} \int_x^b f = 0[/itex].
Is it safe to assume that if [itex]g \sim f, x \rightarrow b[/itex] and [itex]\int g[/itex] converges then so does [itex]\int f[/itex]?
My book shows some tests for uniform convergence, but that's not exactly the same thing, is it?