Could someone clear up the paper on casimir effect

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The discussion centers on clarifying the mathematical steps between equations (3.6) and (3.7) in a paper on the Casimir effect. The substitution resulting in l^2/π^2 is explained through a change of variables from Cartesian to polar coordinates, where x represents the radial variable. The term xdx appears due to this coordinate transformation, with the Jacobian contributing to the differential area element. The integration over the radial angle is noted to have already been completed, focusing on the first quadrant of the Cartesian coordinates. Understanding these transformations is crucial for grasping the derivation presented in the paper.
epislon58
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Hello,

could someone please explain to me what happens between (3.6) and (3.7). In specific, I don't understand how substitution results in l^2/pie^2 and also what do they mean integrating over radial angle. And the x next to the dx at (3.7), where did it come from.

http://aphyr.com/data/journals/113/comps.pdf

Thank you!
 
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I didn't look that carefully but xdx is because x is a radial variable, so in the change of coordinates from Cartesian to polar, we usually get rdrdθ, where r is the Jacobian for the change of variables - they use x where I wrote r. The dθ doesn't appear becuase it has been integrated over already. Originally, they integrated over positive values of nx and ny, which are the original Cartesian coordinates. This is the first quadrant, ie. θ=0 to θ=∏/2.
 
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Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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