- #1
iVenky
- 212
- 12
Here's the proof that I read for method of variation of parameters-
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=52267&stc=1&d=1351081780
What I couldn't understand is that how could one simply assume that
u'1y1+u2'y2=0 and
u'1y'1+u2'y'2=g(x)
I just don't understand from where you get those above two results.
I would be really happy if could clear my doubt.
Thanks a lot for physics forum and its members. You have helped me a lot :)
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=52267&stc=1&d=1351081780
What I couldn't understand is that how could one simply assume that
u'1y1+u2'y2=0 and
u'1y'1+u2'y'2=g(x)
I just don't understand from where you get those above two results.
I would be really happy if could clear my doubt.
Thanks a lot for physics forum and its members. You have helped me a lot :)