- #1
Betty
- 2
- 0
I have a question regarding the covariance of the equal time commutation relations in relativistic quantum field theory. In the case of a scalar field one has that the commutator is (see Peskin, pag. 28 eq. (2.53) )
$ [\phi(0), \phi(y)] = D(-y) - D(y) $
is an invariant function, which is zero outside the light cone.
The commutator between the field and the conjugate momentum is
$[\phi(0), \pi(y)] = [\phi(0), \dot \phi(y)] = \partial_{y^0} [\phi(0), \phi(y)] , $
which also implies that $ [\phi(0), \pi(y)] = 0 $ outside the light cone. The equal time commutation rules which lead to second quantization read
$[\phi(0), \pi(y)] = \partial_{y^0} [\phi(0), \phi(y)] = i \delta^3(\vec{y})$ for $ y^0 = 0 $.
However this point seems to me a little bit odd, since this relation, being expressed as the derivative of an invariant quantity, is not invariant. This is also confirmed by the fact that the $\delta^3$ is also not invariant. Therefore, I wonder how we get a covariant theory starting from second quantization rules which are not invariant, or why this fact does not lead to any contradiction.
$ [\phi(0), \phi(y)] = D(-y) - D(y) $
is an invariant function, which is zero outside the light cone.
The commutator between the field and the conjugate momentum is
$[\phi(0), \pi(y)] = [\phi(0), \dot \phi(y)] = \partial_{y^0} [\phi(0), \phi(y)] , $
which also implies that $ [\phi(0), \pi(y)] = 0 $ outside the light cone. The equal time commutation rules which lead to second quantization read
$[\phi(0), \pi(y)] = \partial_{y^0} [\phi(0), \phi(y)] = i \delta^3(\vec{y})$ for $ y^0 = 0 $.
However this point seems to me a little bit odd, since this relation, being expressed as the derivative of an invariant quantity, is not invariant. This is also confirmed by the fact that the $\delta^3$ is also not invariant. Therefore, I wonder how we get a covariant theory starting from second quantization rules which are not invariant, or why this fact does not lead to any contradiction.