- #1
jfy4
- 649
- 3
Hi Everyone,
I'm interested in forming Lagrange's equations of motion using a Lagrangian I made up today. It looks like this:
[tex]\mathcal{L}(\dot{\psi},\psi)=\sqrt{\langle \dot{\psi}_b|C^{\dagger}_bC_a|\dot{\psi}_a\rangle}[/tex]
where [tex]C^{\dagger}_b[/tex] is a creation operator for a basis [tex]b[/tex] etc... and a dot represents a full derivative with respect to some parametrization [tex]\tau[/tex].
Now there is no [tex]\psi[/tex] dependence so I believe I am only interested in this part:
[tex]-\frac{d}{d\tau}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial\dot{\psi}_a}=0[/tex]
I have gotten this far:
[tex]-\frac{d}{d\tau}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial\dot{\psi}_a}=-\frac{d}{d\tau}\left(\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{\mathcal{L}}\left(\int \partial_{\dot{\psi}_a}\dot{\psi}_{b}^{\ast}C^{\dagger}_bC_a\dot{\psi}_a d\tau + \int \dot{\psi}_{b}^{\ast}\partial_{\dot{\psi}_a}(C^{\dagger}_bC_a)\dot{\psi}_a d\tau + \int \dot{\psi}_{b}^{\ast}C^{\dagger}_bC_a\partial_{\dot{\psi}_a}\dot{\psi}_a d\tau\right)\right)=0.[/tex]
The first partial turns to 0 i think, the second partial I'm not sure how to interpret, but I think it's zero too because of no [tex]\dot{\psi}_a[/tex] dependence and the last partial I believe is 1. Anyone got a comment on accuracy or how to clean it up any better?
Thanks in advance.
I'm interested in forming Lagrange's equations of motion using a Lagrangian I made up today. It looks like this:
[tex]\mathcal{L}(\dot{\psi},\psi)=\sqrt{\langle \dot{\psi}_b|C^{\dagger}_bC_a|\dot{\psi}_a\rangle}[/tex]
where [tex]C^{\dagger}_b[/tex] is a creation operator for a basis [tex]b[/tex] etc... and a dot represents a full derivative with respect to some parametrization [tex]\tau[/tex].
Now there is no [tex]\psi[/tex] dependence so I believe I am only interested in this part:
[tex]-\frac{d}{d\tau}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial\dot{\psi}_a}=0[/tex]
I have gotten this far:
[tex]-\frac{d}{d\tau}\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial\dot{\psi}_a}=-\frac{d}{d\tau}\left(\frac{1}{2}\frac{1}{\mathcal{L}}\left(\int \partial_{\dot{\psi}_a}\dot{\psi}_{b}^{\ast}C^{\dagger}_bC_a\dot{\psi}_a d\tau + \int \dot{\psi}_{b}^{\ast}\partial_{\dot{\psi}_a}(C^{\dagger}_bC_a)\dot{\psi}_a d\tau + \int \dot{\psi}_{b}^{\ast}C^{\dagger}_bC_a\partial_{\dot{\psi}_a}\dot{\psi}_a d\tau\right)\right)=0.[/tex]
The first partial turns to 0 i think, the second partial I'm not sure how to interpret, but I think it's zero too because of no [tex]\dot{\psi}_a[/tex] dependence and the last partial I believe is 1. Anyone got a comment on accuracy or how to clean it up any better?
Thanks in advance.
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