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pivoxa15
- 2,255
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Is it defined? if not why not?
No, it doesn't. Neither is there a paradox here.NEWO said:it seems also similar to the 0/0 paradox. theory states that anything divided by zero is infinte,
No, it doesn't and isn't.theory also states that anything to the power of 0 is 1. Therefore, 0^0 =1.
As with so many subjects in education, there are lies everywhere. In physics you're told "electrons spin around the nucleus like planets around the sun" only to then find out they form 'distributions'. You are often given the impression at high school level that all functions can be differentiated or integrated nicely, then you try to integrate [tex]e^{-x^{2}}[/tex] indefinitely.NEWO said:no offense, I am sure your credentials are much better than mine but that is how I've been taught and it works for me.
Who taught you that "0/0 is a paradox"? What does thet even mean? Theory does not state that anything divided by zero is infinite. Theory does state that the operation x --->1/x is not a well defined function on R, but merely on R\{0}. Theory states that there are extensions of R (compactifications) where 1/x does extend to a function whose domain includes 0, and the symbol 1/0 is commonly labelled [itex]\infty[/itex]. It still does not provide a way to define 0/0 though, as can be readily demonstrated, but it is not a paradox.NEWO said:no offense, I am sure your credentials are much better than mine but that is how I've been taught and it works for me.
this is a good thought on your part!NEWO said:i suppose because zero is strange that 0^0 is not defined.
matt grime said:Who taught you that "0/0 is a paradox"? What does thet even mean? Theory does not state that anything divided by zero is infinite. Theory does state that the operation x --->1/x is not a well defined function on R, but merely on R\{0}. Theory states that there are extensions of R (compactifications) where 1/x does extend to a function whose domain includes 0, and the symbol 1/0 is commonly labelled [itex]\infty[/itex]. It still does not provide a way to define 0/0 though, as can be readily demonstrated, but it is not a paradox.
Hurkyl said:The most common use of 0^0 = 1 is a result of de-abstraction.
In a polynomial ring, or power series ring, one might have a symbol x. x does not stand for a number; it is a number in its own right! And since x is not zero, or a zero divisor, we would properly say that x^0 = 1.
One of the typical uses of a polynomial ring, or a power series ring, is that we can substitute a number for x. I.E. if we have the polynomial f = x^2 + x + 1, we can make a substitution f(2) = 2^2 + 2 + 1.
Now, if f = x^0 = 1, then f(0) = 1 as well, but formally it looks like we said f(0) = 0^0 = 1!
When exponents can only refer to repeated multiplication, then 0^0 = 1 is usually right.
But when we are working with real numbers, none of the above applies. A very important thing about exponentiation is that it's continuous, and exponentiation cannot be continuous at 0^0, therefore it is undefined there.
Because 0^x = 0 and x^0 = 1 for positive real numbers x. If exponentiation was continuous at 0^0, then it would be equal to the limit of both of those expressions as x goes to zero.Why can't exponentiation be continuous at 0^0?
NEWO said:i suppose because zero is strange that 0^0 is not defined.
Hurkyl said:Because 0^x = 0 and x^0 = 1 for positive real numbers x. If exponentiation was continuous at 0^0, then it would be equal to the limit of both of those expressions as x goes to zero.
Minor nitpick -- if f is continuous at a point, then its value at that point is the limit, and if is discontinuous there, then its value is something other than the limit.So if a function is continuous at a point, we define the value of the function to be that value at that point.
Hurkyl said:But at least if we restrict ourselves to the closed first quadrant, but with the origin removed, x^y would be everywhere continuous, so it is still reasonable to leave x^0 and 0^x defined for positive x.
pivoxa15 said:But in that case they have assumed it to equal 1 without explicitly stating it. Is it usually the case that if 0^0 occurs but they don't mention its value, just assume it equals 1?
Nope. That identity is false. You get one guess as to why. The actual identity has another clase you left out.[tex]n^-1 = 1/n[/tex]
...
correct?
You were (or should have been) taught that n^(-1) = 1/n... when n is nonzero. You should never have been taught that the above equation is true, let alone is well-defined, for every n.I was always taught that n^-1= 1/n.
Universe_Man said:[tex](0^-1)(0^1) = (1/0)(0/1) = 1 = 0^0[/tex]
So given that the following is true, I would come to the conclusion that [tex]0^0[/tex] is defined. But there is something weird about that [tex]1/0[/tex].
**bouncey!** said:no, I am only at secondary school but it makes more sense for the answer to be 0.
the answer is only 1 for other intergers to the power of 0 becuse say take 3
3to the 3 = 27 3 to the 2=9 3 to the 1= 3 you are dividing by three each time so it makes sense for the nxt to be 0 .
you do not get this with 0
Universe_Man said:plus if you put [itex]0^0[/itex] into the calculator on windows, it gives you 0 which confirms it.
Universe_Man said:plus if you put [itex]0^0[/itex] into the calculator on windows, it gives you 0 which confirms it. And since 0 is a definable value, [itex]0^0[/itex] is defined.
masudr said:Infinity is defined, in fact, as a limit:
[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow0}\frac{1}{x}\equiv\infty.[/tex]
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