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Hello all, I am an undergraduate student who is studying real analysis from Rudin's POMA and I am trying to prove that these two definitions that I have for dense sets are equivalent:
1) Given a metric space X and E ⊂ X ; E is dense in X iff every point of X is a limit point of E or E = X or both of these are true.
2) Given a metric space X and E ⊂ X; E is dense in X iff the intersection of E and every non-empty open set of X is non-empty.
In an attempt to prove the equivalence I have encountered an example which I can't get my head around it.
Given the set X such that X consists of all points ##s_n## , where ##s_n = \sum_{k=0}^n (1/2)^n## for all n ≥ 0, and 2 as well. Now define the metric for such a set to be the same as that of ℝ. Then X is a metric space. Now according to definition (1) the only dense set in X is X itself, but according to (2) the set V = X - {2} is a dense set in X besides X as well. However we should not have such a problem. So could you please point out what I am doing wrong. Thank you.
1) Given a metric space X and E ⊂ X ; E is dense in X iff every point of X is a limit point of E or E = X or both of these are true.
2) Given a metric space X and E ⊂ X; E is dense in X iff the intersection of E and every non-empty open set of X is non-empty.
In an attempt to prove the equivalence I have encountered an example which I can't get my head around it.
Given the set X such that X consists of all points ##s_n## , where ##s_n = \sum_{k=0}^n (1/2)^n## for all n ≥ 0, and 2 as well. Now define the metric for such a set to be the same as that of ℝ. Then X is a metric space. Now according to definition (1) the only dense set in X is X itself, but according to (2) the set V = X - {2} is a dense set in X besides X as well. However we should not have such a problem. So could you please point out what I am doing wrong. Thank you.