- #1
Andrea94
- 21
- 8
I am currently enrolled in a statistics course, and the following is stated in my course book with no attempt at an explanation:
Suppose that f is the probability density function for the random variable (X,Y), and that F is the distribution function. Then,
[tex]f_{X,Y}(x,y)=\frac{\partial^{2} F_{X,Y}(x,y)}{\partial x \partial x}[/tex]
I have repeatedly tried to find an explanation for why this is so, but all I keep finding is documents from various university statistics courses that just flat out give this result with no attempt at an explanation.
My question is, can you show or explain why the above result is true?
Suppose that f is the probability density function for the random variable (X,Y), and that F is the distribution function. Then,
[tex]f_{X,Y}(x,y)=\frac{\partial^{2} F_{X,Y}(x,y)}{\partial x \partial x}[/tex]
I have repeatedly tried to find an explanation for why this is so, but all I keep finding is documents from various university statistics courses that just flat out give this result with no attempt at an explanation.
My question is, can you show or explain why the above result is true?