- #1
greypilgrim
- 543
- 37
Hi.
Here, somebody apparently derives Maxwell's equations using only symmetry of second derivatives and the Lorenz gauge condition. Unfortunately it's in German, but I think the basic ideas are clear from the maths only.
In this derivation, the magnetic field turns out to be divergence-free, even before the application of the gauge condition. Why? Shouldn't such a general derivation allow for magnetic monopoles?
Also, it seems a bit suspicious that this derivation only works by fixing a specific gauge. How can this be the same as usual ED which allows different gauges?
Here, somebody apparently derives Maxwell's equations using only symmetry of second derivatives and the Lorenz gauge condition. Unfortunately it's in German, but I think the basic ideas are clear from the maths only.
In this derivation, the magnetic field turns out to be divergence-free, even before the application of the gauge condition. Why? Shouldn't such a general derivation allow for magnetic monopoles?
Also, it seems a bit suspicious that this derivation only works by fixing a specific gauge. How can this be the same as usual ED which allows different gauges?