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Hi guys,
I have a very particular question on the derivation of DOS.
For a particle in an infinite box k=π/L. However, when deriving the density of states, all textbooks use k=2π/L
Now you could argue that they account for spin degeneracy, but its not that! Because in the textbooks that happens (again) in a later step
So where is this factor 2 coming from?
Thanks,
Array
I have a very particular question on the derivation of DOS.
For a particle in an infinite box k=π/L. However, when deriving the density of states, all textbooks use k=2π/L
Now you could argue that they account for spin degeneracy, but its not that! Because in the textbooks that happens (again) in a later step
So where is this factor 2 coming from?
Thanks,
Array